The solution I was given says:
Let $F$ be a field and suppose $u^2=u$ for some nonzero $u$ in $F$. By multiplying each side by $u^{-1}$ it is clear that $0$ and $1$ are the only solutions of $x^2=x$ in a field. Now let $K$ be a subfield of $F$. The unity of $K$ satisfies the equation $x^2=x$ in $K$ and hence also in $F$ and thus must be the unity $1$ of $F$.
I am really confused why they used $u^2=u$ and what does this have to do with $x$ in a field? And from there how can you just say that the unity of $K$ satisfies the $x^2=x$ relationship?
An explanation here would be really helpful
If $u$ is any element of $F$ satisfying $u^2=u$, then either $u=0$ or $u=1$.
If $K$ is a subring of $F$ having unity $e$, possibly different from $1\in F$, then $e^2=ee=e$ by definition of unity. So either $e=0$ or $e=1$, because $e\in F$. The case $e=0$ is disallowed if $K$ is a subfield, because in a field it is required that the unity is nonzero.
The authors of that solutions use a confusing mix of letters; what they want to say is that the equation $x^2=x$ in $F$ has only the solutions $0$ and $1$. A unity in $K$ must be a solution of that equation.