Let $V$ be a finite dimensional linear space. How do you prove that there exists such an m that:
$$\text{ker} (T^m) = \text{ker} (T^{m+1}).$$
I have managed to prove using induction that for each $m≥1$, $\text{ker} (T^m) ⊆ ker (T^{m+1})$. So, I have a unidirectional inclusion. Instead of proving the inclusion in the other direction I think I can just prove that the dimensions of the two sets are equal. I understand that
$$\text{Dim} V = \text{Dim ker}T + \text{Dim ImT},$$
but I'm not sure how to go about it.
Denote $V_m=\text{ker}(T^m )$
Each time $V_m\subsetneq V_{m+1}$ then the dimension of the subspace $V_m$ increases by at least $1$.
On the other hand $|V_m|\leq |V|$ for all $m$. Therefore, $V_m$ is a strict subspace of $V_{m+1}$ finitely many times.
So, there is an $m_0$ such that for all $n\geq m_0$, we have $V_n=V_{n+1}$.