I wish to show that we cannot find effective bounds on the point that the Mean Value Theorem proves to exist. To prove this loose statement, I aimed at the slightly more specific claim:
For each real number $M$ and each real number $\xi$ that lies strictly between $0$ and $1$, construct a function $f$ such that $$f(0)=0,\; f(1)=M,\;f\text{ is continuous on }[0,1],\; f\text{ is differentiable on }(0,1),\;\text{ and }\xi\text{ is the unique point strictly between 0 and 1 such that}\;f'(\xi)=M\,.$$
For the $M\neq 0$ and $\xi\neq 1/e$ case, we can show that $$g(x)=\begin{cases} 0&\text{ if }x=0,\\ 1/e&\text{ if }x=1\\ 1&\text{ if }x=\infty,\\ \sqrt[1-x]{x}&\text{ otherwise} \end{cases}$$
is strictly increasing and continuous on $[0,\infty]$. Thus there is a unique positive $\alpha$ such that $g(\alpha)=\xi$. In turn, we can define $f(x)=Mx^\alpha$ which will satisfy the claim. For the $M\neq 0$ and $\xi=1/e$ case, take the obvious continuous extension of $f(x)=M(x+x\ln(x))$.
For $M=0$, we first choose $\alpha\geq 1$ and $\beta\geq 1$ such that $\frac{\alpha}{\alpha+\beta}=\xi$. We then define $f(x)=x^\alpha(1-x)^\beta$ which will satisfy the claim.
My question however is this:
Can we construct such an $f$ to be a polynomial?
An existential proof isn't desirable here, as I hope to use this family of polynomials as examples. It'd be useful to prove the uniqueness of $\xi$ through calculation (but possibly an appeal to monotonicity and the Intermediate Value Theorem).
First, imagine $f$ is some such polynomial for $\xi$. Then let $g(x)=f(x)-Mx$. We have $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and $\xi$ is the unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$. So allow me to replace the problem as written with the Mean Value Theorem to one about Rolle's Theorem.
Below is a proof that if you have $\xi>\frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>\frac{1-2\xi}{\xi-1}$, and then take $t=\frac{(n+2)\xi^2-(n+1)\xi}{-2\xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $\xi$.
If $\xi<\frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction with $t<-1$. And if $\xi=\frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.
For example, with $\xi=\frac{e}{\pi}$, we can take $n=6$, and $t=\frac{8(e/\pi)^2-7(e/\pi)}{-2(e/\pi)+1}\approx0.09233\ldots$. Then $g(x)=(x+t)^6x(1-x)$ is such that $g'$ has only one zero in $(0,1)$, and it is located at $\frac{e}{\pi}$. See this demonstrated at WolframAlpha.
Explanation
Assume $\xi>\frac{1}{2}$. Consider $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ for $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and $t\in\mathbb{R}_{\gt0}$. Then $$ \begin{align} g'(x)&=n(x+t)^{n-1}x(1-x)+(x+t)^n(1-x)-(x+t)^nx\\ &=(x+t)^{n-1}\big(nx(1-x)+(x+t)(1-x)-(x+t)x\big)\\ &=(x+t)^{n-1}\big(x^2(-n-2)+x(n+1-2t)+t\big)\\ \end{align} $$ The zeros of $g'$ are $-t$ (which is not in $(0,1)$) and $$\frac{-(n+1-2t)\pm\sqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}=\frac{A\pm B}{C}$$ Since $n,t>0$, it follows that $|B|>|A|$. It follows that one of these two roots is negative (so not in $(0,1)$) and the other is positive. So if the positive root is equal to $\xi$, then $g$ satisfies the Rolle's version of the proposition. We have freedom to choose $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $t\in\mathbb{R}_{\gt0}$, so maybe we can choose them well. In the following, we attempt to solve for $t$ in terms of $\xi$ and $n$.
$$\begin{align} \xi&=\frac{-(n+1-2t)\pm\sqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}\\ -2(n+2)\xi&=-(n+1-2t)\pm\sqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}\\ -2(n+2)\xi+n+1-2t&=\pm\sqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t} \end{align}$$ Squaring both sides: $$\begin{align} [-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t\\ [-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1)^2-4(n+1)t+4t^2+4(n+2)t\\ [-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]&=(n+1)^2+4t\\ [-2(n+2)\xi+n+1]^2-(n+1)^2&=4t[-2(n+2)\xi+n+2]\\ 4(n+2)^2\xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)\xi&=4t(-2(n+2)\xi+n+2)\\ \end{align}$$ $$\begin{align} t&=\frac{4(n+2)^2\xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)\xi}{4(-2(n+2)\xi+n+2)}\\ &=\frac{(n+2)\xi^2-(n+1)\xi}{-2\xi+1} \end{align}$$ We have assumed $\xi>\frac{1}{2}$, so the denominator is negative. We need $t$ to be positive, so we need the numerator to be negative. Can we choose $n$ to make that happen? $$\begin{align} (n+2)\xi^2-(n+1)\xi&<0\\ n(\xi^2-\xi)&<\xi-2\xi^2\\ n(\xi-1)&<1-2\xi\\ n&>\frac{1-2\xi}{\xi-1} \end{align}$$ So yes. If you have $\xi>\frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>\frac{1-2\xi}{\xi-1}$, and then take $t=\frac{(n+2)\xi^2-(n+1)\xi}{-2\xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $\xi$.
And restating from the introduction, if $\xi<\frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction where $t<-1$. And if $\xi=\frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.
This approach was motivated by starting with $x(1-x)$, and then multiplying by some power of $(x+t)$ that would "warp" the parabola in between $0$ and $1$ without making it wiggle. Something that would stretch $x(1-x)$ vertically, but moreso on the right side than the left side, to push the extremum farther to the right. (Or the other way when $\xi<\frac{1}{2}$.)