Let $X\subset Y\subset Z$. Prove that $Z-(Y-X)=X\cup(Z-Y)$.
Here, $A-B$ is the complement of $B$ in $A$.
To establish equality, I need to show that $Z-(Y-X)\subset X\cup(Z-Y)$ and $X\cup(Z-Y)\subset Z-(Y-X)$. Here's how I start the proof:
Let $\alpha\in Z-(Y-X)$. Then $\alpha\in Z$ and $\alpha\not\in Y-X$, which means $\color{red}{\alpha\not\in Y}$ and $\alpha\in X$. The fact that $\alpha\in X$ is sufficient to establish that $\alpha\in X\cup(Z-Y)$, and so $Z-(Y-X)\subset X\cup(Z-Y)$.
But $X\subset Y$, which would mean $\alpha\in Y$. This seems to contradict the highlighted portion above. What am I missing here?
I can see that equality holds by looking at the Venn diagram below. $X$ is green/innermost region, $Y$ is blue/middle, and $Z$ is red/outermost. Then $Y-X$ is the blue region alone, and so $Z-(Y-X)$ is made up of both the green and red regions. On the other hand, $Z-Y$ is the red region alone, so $X\cup(Z-Y)$ is that plus the green region. So it's (pictorially) true that $Z-(Y-X)=X\cup(Z-Y)$.
Based on this picture, it seems to be the case that $\alpha$ cannot belong to $X$. Then is the "contradiction" I point to above actually of no consequence to the proof?

You write:
But that is wrong. If $\alpha\not\in Y-X$, then $\alpha\not\in Y$ or $\alpha\in X$
To see this, note that $\alpha \in Y-X$ iff $\alpha \in Y$ and $\alpha \not \in X$, and negating the latter, we get $\alpha\not\in Y$ or $\alpha\in X$