(∀y)(∀x)(¬=∨=)→(∀x)(¬=∨=)
I am using Mathematical Logic by Dr. Tourlakis. My try:
(∀x)(¬=∨=)
¬((∀y))(∀x)(¬=∨=) )∨(∀x)(¬=∨=) <1+A⊢B∨A>
(∀y)(∀x)(¬=∨=)→(∀x)(¬=∨=)<3+implication theorem +equation>
How can I prove this one ? Is my answer correct and accurate to you?
Hint
Assume the antecedent : $(∀y)(∀x)(\lnot (x=y) \lor x=y)$ and apply Ax2 [page 139] : $(\forall x)A \to A[x := t]$ twice to get :
where term $t$ is free for $y$ and $x$ [see page 133 : every term different from $x$ and $y$ will do].
Then use 6.1.1 (Weak Generalization) [page 155] to get :
Finally, use 2.6.1 (Deduction Theorem) [page 81].