I'm working through Mendelson's Introduction to Mathematical Logic and I'm having trouble proving the following statement:
'' There is no first-order theory $K$ whose models are exactly the interpretations with finite domains." (ex. 2.57)
I've been trying to argue that any theory $K$ with a model with finite domain also has a model with infinite domain, since we may extend the finite domain into an infinite one. I am however not sure how to go about this formally. I was wondering whether I am on the right track at all an if so, if anyone could help me formalise this idea.
Claim: "in FOL, there is no theory, $A$, such that ${\cal M}\vDash A\iff |M|<\aleph_0$"
Proof:
Let $$\varphi_n=\exists x_1\cdots\exists x_n\left(\bigwedge_{0<j<i\le n}x_i\ne x_j\right)$$ for all $n\ge2$.
In other words, a model satisfy $\varphi_n$ if it has at least $n$ elements.
Assume for the sake of contradiction that $A$ like above exists, then look at $A\cup\{\varphi_n\}_{n\in\Bbb N_{\ge2}}$, this is finitely satisfiable theory, thus it has a model, but it will have to be an infinite domain model, contradiction.