I'm having a hard time understanding how to prove this: here is the proof I've read - however I understand that this is actually proving $(B\equiv \bot) \vdash \neg(A\equiv B) \equiv \neg A\equiv B$:
$$\neg(A\equiv B)$$ <=> (axiom) $$(A\equiv B)\equiv \bot$$ <=> (Leib + axiom: $B\equiv \bot \equiv \bot \equiv B$; 'C-part' is $A\equiv p$)
Question: How come I can use $B\equiv \bot$ in an axiom? $$A\equiv \bot \equiv B$$ <=> (Leib + axiom: $A\equiv \bot \equiv \neg A$; 'C-part' is $p\equiv B$) $$\neg A \equiv B$$
The proof uses Equational logic (see also this post for details).
We start form the premise :
and we want to transform it (through equivalences) into the conclusion.
The first step uses the axiom defining $\lnot$ : $\lnot A \equiv (A \equiv \bot)$ to get :
2) $(A≡B) \equiv \bot$.
The next step uses associativity of $\equiv$ to get :
3) $A≡ (B \equiv \bot)$.
Now we use Leibniz's rule :
with axiom for symmetry of $\equiv$ : $(B \equiv \bot) \equiv (\bot \equiv B)$.
This means to use the axiom as $C$ and $(B \equiv \bot)$ as $D_1$ and $A$ as $D_2$, to get :
4) $A \equiv (\bot \equiv B)$.
Apply associativity again to get :
5) $(A \equiv \bot) \equiv B$
and finally use Leibniz again with the axiom for $\lnot$ to replace $(A \equiv \bot)$ in 5) with $\lnot A$ to conclude with :