I designed a proof for a problem set but I'm unsure whether the proof is actually conclusive. The proof is as follows:
If a parallelogram's diagonals bisect each other, then...
$\frac{1}{2}(\lvert\vec{A}\rvert + \lvert\vec{B}\rvert) + \frac{1}{2}(\lvert\vec{A}\rvert - \lvert\vec{B}\rvert) - \lvert\vec{A}\rvert = \frac{1}{2}(\lvert\vec{A}\rvert + \lvert\vec{B}\rvert) + \frac{1}{2}(\lvert\vec{B}\rvert - \lvert\vec{A}\rvert) - \lvert\vec{B}\rvert = 0$
With a little algebra, it can be seen that the above equation is true. I'm wondering if there is any way for the equation to be true and not have the diagonals of quadrilateral ABCD (if proof is conclusive, then parallelogram ABCD) bisect.
HINT: If one vertex of the parallelogram is at the origin and $\vec A$ and $\vec B$ are adjacent edges, one diagonal is $\vec A + \vec B$. What is its midpoint? The other diagonal starts, say, at $\vec A$ and proceeds to $\vec B$. What's the vector from the origin to the midpoint of that diagonal?