$(1-x)^n \geq 1 - nx\,\, $
If i expand the left side of the inequality with the binomianl coefficient formula I obtain:
$1-nx + {n \choose 2}x^2 - {n \choose 3}x^3 ... $ now I see where the $1-nx$ in the inequality came from, but how do I prove that $$ {n \choose 2}x^2 - {n \choose 3}x^3 ...> 0 $$
Well inequality holds if $x\in[0,1]$ and $n\geq 1.$ A typical proof:
Set $f(x)=(1-x)^n+nx-1$ then $f'(x)=-n(1-x)^{n-1}+n=n[1-(1-x)^n]\ge 0.$ So $f $ is increasing , note that $f(0)=0$ therefore $f(x)\geq 0.$