I have a question about a variation of the content in this answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/694319/418401
It states (variated) that: $$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \land (\forall y)(\exists x)\lnot A(y,x) $$
This sentence must be false for all finite domains, but is true for some infinite domain (indeed, take the set of integers and define $A(y,x)$ as $y > x$, then this implication is true).
However, how can I proof that the form is false for a domain with $n$ elements? Then, by the last part of the disjunction, for every $y$, there exist $0 < k \leq n$ elements $x_k$ where $A(y,x_k)$ is true. Also, there are $i= n-k$ elements $x_i$ where $A(y,x_i)$ is false. But this doesn't say anything about the part of the form that says $(A(x,y) \land A(y,x))$ except that $A(x,y)$ must be true for some $x,y$..
Note that this is the negation of the form $$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \implies (\exists y)(\forall x)A(y,x) $$ Maybe we must proof that this is always true, but then again I can't make the next step in my thinking.
First of all: the statement as you have it can be true for any domain, finite, or infinite. ... That second part $(\forall y)(\exists x)\lnot A(y,x)$ is trivially true once you already have from the first part that $(\forall x) \neg A(x,x)$
So ... I am fairly certain that the statement should be:
$$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \land (\forall y)(\exists x)A(x,y) $$
Now: the first part of the sentence states that $A$ is a total order: $A$ is irreflexive, transitive, and total. What this means is that all the objects in the domain can be 'lined up' from left to right, where for any object $x$ and any object $y$: $x$ is to the left of $y$ if and only if $A(x,y)$ (and so of course you can do this for any domain, finite, or infinite, which is again why your original statement can be made true for any size domain)
So: if you have a finite number of objects in your domain, then you must have a 'left most' (or 'smallest') object with no further object to the left of it. Hence, $(\forall y)(\exists x)A(x,y)$ will have to be false if $ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))]$ is true ... if you have a finite domain. For infinite domain, we can of course consider something like the integers, that can be ordered using $<$, but where there is no 'smallest' (or 'biggest') object.
EDIT
I see that you try to understand why
$$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \rightarrow (\exists y)(\forall x)A(y,x) $$
has to be true for any finite sized domain.
Hint: try induction to show that for any $n \ge 1$: this claim has to be true for any domain with $n$ objects. Here's a start:
Base: 1 object (the base is 1 ... in logic we typically assume the domain is non-empty ... in fact, if the domain were empty, the claim would be false!).
OK, call this object $a$. For the antecedent to be true we must have $A(a,a)$ ... but asince $a$ is the only object from the domain we have $(\exists y)(\forall x)A(y,x)$
Step: Take any $n \ge 1$. Suppose claim is true for this $n$ (inductive hypothesis)
Now show it is true for $n+1$. So take domain with $n+1$ objects. Put 1 object (call it a) aside. Apply inductive hypothesis on the remaining $n$ ... and I think you can take it from here ...