I am trying to prove that $(A \cup B) - (A \cup C) \subset A \cup (B - C)$. Here is as far as I managed to get.
Let $x \in (A \cup B) - (A \cup C)$. Then: \begin{align*} x \in (A \cup B) - (A \cup C) & \implies x \in (A \cup B) \text{ and } x \not \in (A \cup C) \\ & \implies (x \in A \text{ or } x \in B) \text{ and } (x \not \in A \text{ and } x \not \in C) \\ & \implies ((x \in A \text{ or } x \in B) \text{ and } x \not \in A) \text{ and } x \not \in C \\ & \implies (x \in B \text{ and } x \not \in A) \text{ and } x \not \in C \\ & \implies x \in B - A \text{ and } x \not \in C \end{align*} In other words, I cannot managed to get there, and have gone down a wildly peculiar path. Any help to get me on the right track would be appreciated.
Once you conclude that
$(x \in A$ or $x \in B)$ and ($x \notin A$ and $x \notin C$.)
Consider two cases,
if $x \in A$, then you are done.
If $x \notin A$, then we must have $x \in B$ and $x \notin C$.
That if we have shown that $x \in A \cup (B-C).$