For the sake of this question, let us consider the De Moivre theorem. As of now, I am able to prove $(\cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta))^{n} = \cos(n\theta)+i\sin(n\theta)$ for all integers(positive and negative).
Using the fact that the theorem holds good for integers, if I try to prove the theorem for $\frac{a+b}{2}$, where $a$ and $b$ are integers, will this prove the theorem for all real numbers?
Note: The intent of this question is NOT to prove the theorem for all real numbers, but to discuss whether proving a theorem for $\frac{a+b}{2}$ where $a$ and $b$ are integers is a valid method to prove for all real numbers
If this were a valid proof technique, you could use it to prove that all real numbers are rational: clearly all integers are rational, and if $\frac pq$ and $\frac rs$ are rational then so is $$ \frac{\frac pq + \frac rs}2 = \frac{ps + rq}{2qs}. $$ Therefore this is not a valid proof technique for proving something for all real numbers.