Proving an inequality involving definite integrals.

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Consider a probability distribution $f(x)$ with the assumption $\int_0^{\infty}f(x) > 1/2$. I am trying to prove the following inequality:

\begin{align} \left( \int_0^{\infty}\int_{-u}^{0}f(x)f(u)dxdu +\int_0^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{0}f(x)f(u)dxdu \right) > & \int_{-\infty}^{0}\int_{-\infty}^{-u}f(x)f(u)dxdu. \end{align}

My attempt is as follows:

\begin{align} LHS &= \left( \int_0^{\infty}\int_{-u}^{0}f(x)f(u)dxdu +\int_0^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{0}f(x)f(u)dxdu \right) \\ &= \left( \int_{-\infty}^{0}\int_{-x}^{\infty}f(x)f(u)dudx +\int_{-\infty}^{0}\int_0^{\infty}f(x)f(u)dudx \right) \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{0} f(x) \left( \int_{-x}^{\infty}f(u)du + \int_{0}^{\infty}f(u)du \right)dx \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{0} f(u) \left( \int_{-u}^{\infty}f(x)dx + \int_{0}^{\infty}f(x)dx \right)du. \\ \end{align}

I am stuck at this step. I used the following MATLAB simulation to prove the last step using a Gaussian family of distributions

$$ f(x,u) = f(x)f(u) = \frac{1}{2 \pi (2m)} e^{\frac{-(x-m)^2}{(2m)}} e^{\frac{-(u-m)^2}{(2m)}}. $$ The constant $\frac{1}{2 \pi (2m)}$ is ignored in the simulation.

close all; clear all;clc;
mvals = (1e-5:.1:5);
q1 = zeros(1, length(mvals));
q2 = q1;
q3 = q1;
for i=1:length(mvals);
    mval = mvals(i);
    sigma2 = 2*abs(mval);
    % Function
    fun1 = @(x,y) exp(-(x-mval).^2./(2*sigma2)) .* exp(-(y-mval).^2./(2*sigma2));
    ymax = @(x) -x;
    % LHS Integrals
    q1(i) = integral2(fun1, -Inf, 0, ymax, Inf);
    q2(i) = integral2(fun1, -Inf, 0, 0, Inf);

    % RHS Integral
    q3(i) = integral2(fun1, -Inf, 0, -Inf, ymax);
end
figure('Color', [1 1 1]);
plot(mvals, q1, 'b'); hold on;
plot(mvals, q2, 'r'); hold on;
plot(mvals, q1+q2, 'g'); hold on;
plot(mvals, q3, 'k');

I would appreciate any help/hints.

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There are 2 best solutions below

6
On BEST ANSWER

As another answer showed, this inequality does not hold in general. But I will show that it holds for the normal distribution. Assume that $f(x)$ is a normal $N(\mu,1)$ density, therefore , $f(x) =\phi(x-\mu) $and denote $F(x) = \Phi(x-\mu)$ the cumulative distribution function. $\phi()$ and $\Phi()$ are the standard normal density and cdf respectively. $\mu>0$ to reflect the assumption that the probability mass is greater in the positive orthant. Then

\begin{align} \left( \int_0^{\infty}\int_{-u}^{0}f(x)f(u)dxdu +\int_0^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{0}f(x)f(u)dxdu \right) > & \int_{-\infty}^{0}\int_{-\infty}^{-u}f(x)f(u)dxdu \end{align}

$$\Rightarrow \int_0^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\left[\Phi(-\mu)-\Phi(-u-\mu)\right]du +\int_0^{\infty}\Phi(-\mu)\phi(u-\mu)du \;>\; \int_{-\infty}^{0}\Phi(-u-\mu)\phi(u-\mu)du $$

Break and rearrange to obtain $$\Rightarrow 2\Phi(-\mu)\int_0^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)du \;>\; \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(-u-\mu)du \qquad [1]$$

Now, regarding the LHS, by the properties of integration we can subtract $\mu$ from the limits of integration and add it to the argument. So we get

$$\int_0^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)du = \int_{-\mu}^{\infty}\phi(u)du = 1-\Phi(-\mu) = \Phi(\mu) \qquad [2]$$ the last equality from the symmetry properties of the normal.

For the RHS we can write $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(-u-\mu)du = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(-(u+\mu))du$$ and using the symmetry properties of the normal we can write further $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(-u-\mu)du = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Big[1-\Phi(u+\mu)\Big]du$$

$$=1\cdot\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)du-\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(u+\mu)du$$

$$=1 - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(u+\mu)du $$

since the first integral equals unity. Using again integral properties, we subtract $\mu$ from the limits of integration and add it to the integrating variable to obtain

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u-\mu)\Phi(-u-\mu)du = 1 - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u)\Phi(u+2\mu)du \qquad [3] $$

Inserting results $[2]$ and $[3]$ into $[1]$ we want to prove the following inequality:

$$...\Rightarrow 2\Phi(-\mu)\Phi(\mu)\;>\; 1- \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u)\Phi(u+2\mu)du\qquad [4]$$

Regarding the remaining integral in $[4]$ the following general result holds (see for example here):

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(z)\Phi(a+bz)dz = \Phi\left(\frac {a}{\sqrt{1+b^2}}\right)$$ In our case, $a= 2\mu$ and $b=1$ so

$$1-\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(u)\Phi(u+2\mu)du = 1-\Phi\left(\frac {2\mu}{\sqrt{2}}\right) = 1-\Phi(\sqrt2 \mu) = \Phi(-\sqrt2 \mu) \qquad [5]$$ using again the symmetry property. Inserting $[5]$ into $[4]$ we have

$$...\Rightarrow 2\Phi(-\mu)\Phi(\mu)\;>\; \Phi(-\sqrt2 \mu)$$

$$\Rightarrow 2\Phi(\mu)\;>\; \frac {\Phi(-\sqrt2 \mu)}{\Phi(-\mu)}$$

This inequality holds $\forall \mu>0$ since $\Phi(\mu) >1/2 \Rightarrow 2\Phi(\mu)>1$ and $\Phi(-\sqrt2 \mu) < \Phi(-\mu)$.

It can be reasonably conjectured that the inequality will hold for any distribution with a cdf that satisfies the symmetry property $F(x) = 1-F(-x)$, but this needs a proof on its own.

9
On

Hmm, I think your statement is not true in general. It might be true for some specific distribution you tried. But the condition you give is not sufficient.

Here is a counter example. $f(x)=0.55\delta(x-2)+0.05\delta(x+1)+0.4\delta(x+3)$

$$ \int_0^\infty \left[du \int_{-u}^0f(x)f(u)dx\right]=0.55*0.05=0.0275 $$

$$ \int_0^\infty \left[du \int_{-\infty}^0f(x)f(u)dx\right]=0.55*(0.05+0.4)=0.2475 $$

$$ \int_{-\infty}^0 \left[du \int_{-\infty}^{-u}f(x)f(u)dx\right]=(0.4+0.05)*(0.4+0.05)+0.4*0.55=0.4225 $$

Your inequality does not hold since $0.0275+0.2475<0.4225$.

More illustration, the first integral takes the space enter image description here

The second integral takes the space enter image description here

The third integral on the RHS takes the space enter image description here

The red points above are the only possible points that my example can allow.