Problem: Let $f$ and $g$ be continuous, non-negative function on $[0, 1]$, with
$$\int_{0}^{1}e^{-f(x)}dx \geq \int_{0}^{1}e^{-g(x)}dx. $$
Prove that,
$$\int_{0}^{1}g(x)e^{-f(x)}dx \geq \int_{0}^{1}f(x)e^{-g(x)}dx. $$
This problem is an equivalent form of a problem from the book "More Calculus of a variable" by Peter Mercer. In the original problem there was $xf(x)$ and $xg(x)$ in place of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. I couldn't make much progress. I tried contradiction and method which led to conlclude that its enough to show,
$$e^{g(x)}-e^{f(x)}+f(x)e^{f(x)}-g(x)e^{g(x)} < 0.$$ But sadly this is not true in general.
I also tried integration by parts to seperate $\displaystyle\int^{1}_{0}e^{-g(x)}\,dx$ from $\displaystyle\int^{1}_{0}f(x)e^{-g(x)}\,dx$ to use the given inequality. But I didn't happen.
Please help me. I am in high school so please don't use any very advanced inequality.
From the original inequality: $$\int_0^1 e^{-f(x)}dx\ge\int_0^1e^{-g(x)}dx \rightarrow f(x)\le g(x)$$ Normally you would want to prove this specifically but if you are in highschool we will just take it as intuitive. Also, we have the statement: $$e^{-f(x)} \ge e^{-g(x)}$$ Using this: $$g(x)e^{-f(x)} \ge f(x)e^{-f(x)}$$ But also: $$f(x)e^{-f(x)} \ge f(x)e^{-g(x)}$$ Therefore: $$g(x)e^{-f(x)} \ge f(x)e^{-f(x)}\ge f(x)e^{-g(x)}$$ Drop the middle term then integrate: $$g(x)e^{-f(x)} \ge f(x)e^{-g(x)} \rightarrow \int_0^1 g(x)e^{-f(x)} dx \ge \int_0^1f(x)e^{-g(x)}dx$$