Prove that if $\mathbf{x},\mathbf{y},\mathbf{z} \in \mathbb{R}^3$ are coplanar vectors and $\mathbf{N}$ is a unit normal vector to the plane then $$(\mathbf{x}\times\mathbf{y} \cdot \mathbf{N})\ \mathbf{z} + (\mathbf{y}\times\mathbf{z} \cdot \mathbf{N})\ \mathbf{x} + (\mathbf{z}\times\mathbf{x} \cdot \mathbf{N})\ \mathbf{y}=\mathbf{0}.$$
This is an elementary identity involving cross products which is used in the proof of the Gauss-Bonnet Theorem and whose proof was left as an exercise. I've tried it unsuccessfully. Initially I tried writing $\mathbf{N}=\frac{\mathbf{x}\times\mathbf{y}}{\| \mathbf{x}\times\mathbf{y}\|}=\frac{\mathbf{y}\times\mathbf{z}}{\| \mathbf{y}\times\mathbf{z}\|}=\frac{\mathbf{z}\times\mathbf{x}}{\| \mathbf{z}\times\mathbf{x}\|}$ and substituting into the equation to get $\| \mathbf{x}\times\mathbf{y}\|z +\| \mathbf{y}\times\mathbf{z}\|\mathbf{x}+\| \mathbf{z}\times\mathbf{x}\|\mathbf{y}=\mathbf{0}$ but then I realised these terms are only correct up to $\pm$ signs. You could write the norms in terms of sines of angles and divide by norms to get unit vectors with coefficients $\sin\theta,\sin\psi,\sin(\theta+\psi)$ (or $2\pi -(\theta+\psi)$ I suppose) but I don't know what to do from there, especially when the terms are only correct up to sign. Any hints how to prove this identity? Perhaps there is a clever trick to it but I can't see it. Edit: Maybe writing $\mathbf{z}=\lambda\mathbf{x}+\mu\mathbf{y}$ will help.
Here's an observation: If $Q$ is a rotation matrix, then $$ (Qx) \times (Qy) = Q(x \times y) $$
You have to prove that, of course, but it's not too tough. Similarly, $$ (Qx) \cdot (Qy) = x \cdot y $$ and, for a scalar $\alpha$, we have $$ Q (\alpha x) = \alpha (Q x) $$
Now suppose that for some vector $v$, we have $$ (\mathbf{x}\times\mathbf{y} \cdot \mathbf{N})\ \mathbf{z} + (\mathbf{y}\times\mathbf{z} \cdot \mathbf{N})\ \mathbf{x} + (\mathbf{z}\times\mathbf{x} \cdot \mathbf{N})\ \mathbf{y}=\mathbf{v}. $$
Key idea 1: You can apply the rules above to show that for any rotation matrix $Q$, you can apply $Q$ to all the elements on the left to get $Qv$.
Key idea 2: You can choose $Q$ so that it takes $N$ to the vector $(0,0,1)$, and puts $x, y,$ and $z$ into the plane consisting of vectors of the form $(a, b, 0)$. And in that plane, it's easy to see that you get $0$, so $Qv = 0$. Hence $v = 0$, and you're done.
In short: by a change of basis, you can assume that $N$ is the vector $(0,0,1)$ and that the other vectors all lie in the $(a, b, 0)$ plane, and things get easy.