The fact that it is true, seems very obvious, if one draws the complex number $z = (-2 + 0i)$ on the complex plane. The angle is certainly 180 degrees, or pi radians.
But how can this be proven by calculation? Using $\arg(z)=\arctan(b/a)$ or even the "extended" version $\arg(z) = \arctan(b/a) + \text{sign}(b)(1-\text{sign}(a))$ gives $0$.
We can arrive at this conclusion by using the definition of $\arg(z)$. Recall that every complex number can be written in the form,
$$ z = r( \cos(\theta) + i \sin(\theta) ), $$
where $r=\left| z \right|$ and $\theta = \arg(z)$. If $z=-2$ then we have two equations,
$$ -2 = r \cos(\theta) \qquad 0 = r\sin(\theta)$$
The first equation tells us that $r\neq 0$ which then combined with the second equation tells us that $\sin(\theta) = 0$ which is only satisfied if theta is a multiple of $\pi$, i.e. $\theta = n\pi$. We now substitute $\theta = n\pi$ into the first equation and get,
$$ -2 = r \cos(n\pi), $$
$$ \Rightarrow -2 = r (-1)^n,$$
$$\Rightarrow r = 2 (-1)^{n+1},$$
but we know that $r>0$ so $n$ must be odd for the last equality to hold. Therefore we know know that $\theta$ is an odd multiple of $\pi$. In other words,
$$ \arg(-2) = \pi + 2\pi k $$