The following question was asked in real analysis quiz and I am looking for an more elegant solution.
Question :Let $f(x)= \tan^{-1}x $ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}$. Prove that sequence $\{f^{(n)}(0)\}$ is unbounded.
There is a solution given by differentiating $n$ times the expression $(1+x^2) f(x)$ and then using the recurrence relation $(1+x^2) f^{(n+1)} (x)+ 2nx f^{(n)} (x) + n(n-1) f^{(n-1)} (x)=0$ and $f'(0)=1$. But is there a more elegant solution using any other concepts of other branches of pure mathematics or analysis (real, complex, functional).
I thought I should ask here as I don't wanted to use that method although that is clear to me!
From $$f'(x)={1\over 1+x^2}=1-x^2+x^4-x^6+x^8-\ldots\qquad(-1<x<1)$$ we obtain $$f^{(2n+1)}(0)=(-1)^n(2n)!\quad .$$