Let $n>0$ be an even number, and let $z$ be an $n$'th root of a real number. Is $\bar z$ also an $n$'th root of this number?
My answer is yes. The way I solved this was to consider a complex number $z = a+bi$ on the (polar) form $z = re^{i\theta}$.
Solving $z^n = re^{i\theta}$, I get $z = \sqrt[n] r e^{{(i\theta+2\pi m)}/n}$, $0 \leq m \leq n-1$.
Since $n>0$ is an even number, we will always have an even number of solutions. If we then draw the solutions in the complex plane, we will always have that for each solution that $z$ that has an angle $\phi=\theta$, we will always find $\bar z$, also a solution with $\phi=-\theta$ on the complex plane.
However, my answer is more a geometric interpreration/realization than a rigorious algebraic proof.
I wanted to try to prove this in a more general algebraic form: My attempt was to assume $z=a+bi$ is an $n$'th root of a real number. We now want to show that $z=a-bi$ is also an $n$'th root of the same real number.
I tried setting up $(a+bi)^2 = a^2-b^2+2iab$ and $(a-bi)^2 = a^2-b^2-2iab$, noticing that the real part of these numbers are always the same, the imaginary part is different in sign.
Now it's easy to realize that $(2iab)^n=(-2iab)^n$ for all $n>0$ given that $n$ is even.
But I have not proved that if we have a complex number $z = a+bi$ (being an $n$'th root of a real number, there also exists a $\bar z = a-bi$ such that $\bar z$ is also an $n$'th root of the same real number.
If this were the case, shouldn't $(a+bi)^n=(a-bi)^n$ for all even $n>0$? This is obviously not the case, I can find $a$ and $b$ not satisfying this equation.
I guess I'm confused about what I really have to do to prove this.
It's really easy to prove it with the comments, but I don't think you're allowed to use these stronger results to resolve your problem.
So I think you should stay with your initial idea of using $z = re^{i\theta}$.
So, suppose:
Since $x^n \in \mathbb R$, you can conclude that $n\theta \equiv 0 \pmod \pi$
You also have:
$\bar{z} = re^{-i\theta}$
So:
$\bar{z}^n = r^ne^{-ni\theta}$
From there, you can use the parity of n to prove $\frac{z^n}{\bar{z}^n}=\frac{x}{\bar{z}^n}=1$
Edit: As from [Hagen von Eitzen] comment, you don't even need n to be even