I want to make sure my proof is correct.
Problem:
Let $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ be some measure space.
If $1 \leq p \leq q \leq \infty$, and $\mu(X) < \infty$, then $L^q \subseteq L^p$
Case 1: Let $q = \infty$.
If $f \in L^\infty$, then there is a number $M: |f(x)| \leq M \text{ a.e.}$ on $x$.
Therefore, $|f|^p \leq M^p \text{ a.e.}$
and
$$||f||_p^p = \int_X |f|^p d\mu \leq \int_X M^p d\mu = M^p \mu(X) < \infty$$
Therefore, $f \in L^p$ and $L^\infty \subseteq L^p$
Now, let $1 \leq q < \infty$
Partition the set $X$ into
$$A := \{x: |f(x)|<1\}$$ $$B :=\{x:|f(x)| \geq1\}$$
Then,
$$\int_X |f|^p d\mu = \int_A |f|^p d\mu + \int_B |f|^p d\mu \leq \int_A |f|^p d\mu + \int_Bd\mu$$
But,
$$\int_Bd\mu = \mu(B) \leq \mu(X) < \infty$$
and
$$\int_A |f|^p d\mu \leq \int_A |f|^q d\mu\leq \int_X|f|^q d\mu = ||f||_q^q<\infty$$
since $f \in L^q$ by hypothesis.
Therefore, $\int_X|f|^p d\mu < \infty$ and $f \in L^p$
Which entails
$$L^q \subseteq L^p$$
Other than the above notes, your answer looked fine to me.