I am told that showing this is the same as showing that
$$ \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{ x^b }{ (\log x )^a } = \infty.$$
I can solve this limit easily by the rule of L'Hospital:
$$ \lim_{x \to \infty} \dfrac{ b x^{b-1} }{ a ( \log x )^{a-1} 1/x } = \lim_{x \to \infty}\dfrac{ b x^b }{a (\log x )^{a-1} } = \cdots = \left( \frac{b}{a} \right)^a \lim_{x \to \infty} x^b = \infty.$$
I have two questions, first of all, is my work correct?
Secondly, why is showing this limit is $\infty$ is equivalent to proving $(\log x)^a = O( x^b ) $?
My thought is because to prove this $(\log x)^a = O( x^b ) $ we must show that
$$ (\log x)^a < C x^b,$$
for constant $C$ and so $\dfrac{x^b }{(\log x)^a } > 1/C $. Thus, if we know the above limit is infinite, we know the sequence is bounded so that there is some $K$ so that
$$\dfrac{x^b }{(\log x)^a } > K,$$
and so proves our assertment. IS this correct?
Answering your questions, one by one
1) It is correct, but incomplete. The expression just after '$\cdots$' is obtained only if $a$ is natural, otherwise the power of $\log x$ in the denominator will remain a fraction always. The general treatment is as follows. After '$\cdots$' you get, $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{x^b}{(\log x)^a}=\left(\dfrac ba\right)^{\lfloor a\rfloor}\lim_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{x^b}{(\log x)^{\{a\}}}$$ Now, again appling L'Hospital rule, you get $$\text{Required limit}=\left(\dfrac ba\right)^{\lfloor a\rfloor+1}\lim_{x\to\infty}x^b(\log x)^{1-\{a\}}=\infty$$
2) Your reasoning is correct, but the statement that proving this and that is equivalent is a wrong statement. Proving that this limit is $\infty$ is a sufficient condition to show that $(\log x)^a = O(x^b)$, but not necessary, for example, $x^b = O(x^b)$ but the limit of their ratio is $1$.