Proving or disproving regularity of a language

Question

The question is as follows:

 If L1 and L2 are not regular and L1 ⊆ L ⊆ L2, then L is regular

My intuition says that it's wrong so I've been looking for a counterexample, so far I didn't succeed.

Can I please get a direction? is this claim might be true?

Thanks in advance

Answer 1

If you take $L_1=L_2$ not regular, then $L=L_1$ satisfies your assumptions, but cannot be regular.