Prove that :
Let $m\leq n<p$ be integers and let $a_i$ be a real number assigned to each integer $m\leq i\leq p$. Then we have $$\sum\limits^{n}_{i=m}a_i+\sum\limits^{p}_{i=n+1}a_i=\sum\limits^{p}_{i=m}a_i $$
I am following analysis 1 by Tao. He defines series recursively. So we cannot use
$$\sum\limits^{n}_{i=m}a_i = a_m+a_{m+1} \cdots+a_n$$ Here we should use (according to me) induction or backward induction. But in proof by induction I am stuck at the following problem regarding base case $$a_m+ \sum\limits^{p}_{i=m+1}a_i $$.
I had similar problem when I tried backward induction.
How to get past this ?
You're doing your induction from the wrong end. First prove that $\sum_{i=m}^na_i + \sum_{i=n+1}^{n+1}a_i = \sum_{i=m}^{n+1}a_i$ (this should be straightforward from your recursive definition). Then, supposing that $\sum_{i=m}^na_i + \sum_{i=n+1}^pa_i = \sum_{i=m}^pa_i$, show that $\sum_{i=m}^na_i + \sum_{i=n+1}^{p+1}a_i = \sum_{i=m}^{p+1}a_i$. For that, use your recursive definition for $\sum$ on the second summation, not the first.