Let E be a nonempty bounded subset of ℚ. Prove that E has a supremum in ℚ if and only if its supremum in ℝ is rational and that in this case, the two are equal.
This seems intuitive enough, and I know that not all nonempty, bounded subsets of R have a supremum in Q, but how do I prove this?
I can proceed by proving that if E's sup in R is irrational, E does not have sup in Q - but this I have only though one example, not in a general case. How do I say this generally?
I also have to prove the reverse, which is that if sup in R is rational, then E has supremum in Q. Again, I get this intuitively, but how do I prove it?
Help appreciated!
I find it easier to prove directly.
Suppose $E$ has a supremum in $\mathbb{Q}$. Let $\alpha = \sup_\mathbb{Q} E$. Then $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}$, $\alpha$ is an upper bound for $E$, and if $\beta \in \mathbb{Q}$ is an upper bound for $E$, then $\alpha \le \beta$.
Now suppose $\gamma \in \mathbb{R}$ is an upper bound for $E$, and let $q_n \in \mathbb{Q}$ be such that $q_n \downarrow \gamma$. Since $\gamma$ is an upper bound, and $q_n \ge \gamma$, $q_n$ is an upper bound for $E$, and hence $q_n \ge \alpha$. Hence we have $\gamma \ge \alpha$. Hence $\alpha$ is the supremum of $E$ in $\mathbb{R}$.
Now suppose $E$ has a supremum in $\mathbb{R}$, and the supremum is rational. That is, $\alpha = \sup_\mathbb{R} E \in \mathbb{Q}$. Then $\alpha$ is an upper bound for $E$. Suppose $\beta \in \mathbb{Q}$ is an upper bound for $E$, then since $\beta \in \mathbb{R}$, we must have $\alpha \le \beta$. Since $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}$, it follows that $\alpha = \sup_\mathbb{Q} E$.