I'm having issues figuring out how to approach this problem:
Conclude that if $ad-bc = \pm 1$, then $$\gcd(x,y) = \gcd(ax +by, cx + dy)$$ The fact that $\gcd(x,y) = \gcd(x+ky, y)$ is a very special case of this exercise
I believe there is a property that if $a = bq_1 + 0$ where 0 is r, then b divides a, and $b=\gcd(a,b)$
Is that at all relevant in this case?
$\forall m,n; \gcd(x,y)| (mx + ny)$
$\gcd(x,y)|(ax+by)$ and $\gcd(x,y)|(cx+dy)$
$\gcd(x,y)|\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)$
$\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)|(d(ax+by) - b(cx+dy))\\ \gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)|(ad - bc)x\\ \gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)|x$
similarly we can show that
$\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)|(c(ax+by) - a(cx+dy))$ and $\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)|y$
$\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy) | \gcd(x,y)$
if $\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy) | \gcd(x,y)$ and $\gcd(x,y)|\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy)$ then $\gcd(ax+by, cx+dy) = \gcd(x,y)$