Suppose that $A = \{ a_1,a_2,\dots,a_n \}$ and $B = \{ \psi(a_1),\psi(a_2), \dots, \psi(a_n) \}$ for some map $\psi$.
Suppose that there exists a $k$ such that for every $a \in A,$ $a = k - \psi(a),$ in other words, $\psi(a) = a - k$ is a translation.
I would like to show that $\sup A = \sup\{k - \psi(a)\} = k - \inf B$.
The inspiration for this question comes from Spivak's Calculus problem 13-21, where he uses $\sup \{L(g, P)\} = \sup \{ k - U(f,\psi(P))\} = k - \inf\{U(f,\psi(P))\}$.
My attempt goes something like this: we know every element $a$ can be written in the form $k - \psi(a)$, so the sets $\{ a : a \in A \}$ and $\{ k - \psi(a) : a \in A \}$ are clearly equal. If we want to maximize $k - \psi(a)$, we want $\psi(a)$ (over all $a \in A$) to be as small as possible since we want to subtract as small of a value as possible. This happens when we leave $k$ alone, and find the greatest lower bound of all $\psi(a)$. In other words, we take the greatest lower bound of the set of all $\psi(a)$ which is $\inf B$.
Since $\psi$ is traslation, $\psi(a) \leq \psi(b)$ is equivalent to $a \leq b;$ if $a_k \geq a_i$ for all $i,$ then $\psi(a_k) \geq \psi(a_i)$ for all $i,$ showing that $\psi(a_k)$ is the supremum of $\psi(A) = B.$