A function $f:(0,∞)→[0,∞]$ is said to be completely monotonic if its $n$-th derivative exists and $(−1)^nf^{(n)}(x)≥0$, where $f^{(n)}(x)$ is the $n$-th derivative of $f$.
Prove that if $(−\log f(x))′$ is completely monotonic, then $f(x)$ is also completely monotonic.
There are a few papers that use this without explicitly displaying the proof. It may help to display the function as $g(x)=(−\log f(x))′$ then put $f(x)=\exp(−g(x))$ but I have not yet find the pattern to induct the theorem.
It is not hard to prove the result but the easy proof needs a detour through absolutely monotonic functions ($g \ge 0$ s.t all its derivatives are also positive/non-negative) since while essentially equivalent to completely monotonic functions by $f(x)=g(-x)$, their closure properties are much easier to state and obvious to prove:
1: Let $g(x)=f(-x)$, $g$ defined on $(-\infty,0)$ and to prove $f$ completely monotonic is equivalent to proving $g$ absolutely monotonic
2: Any positive/non-negative primitive of an absolutely monotonic functions is absolutely monotonic trivially from the definition
3: $(−\log f(y))′=(\log g(x))′, y=-x$, hence by the hypothesis and the above, $\log g(x)+C$ is absolutely monotonic for some $C>0$ since $\log g$ is a primitive of an absolutely monotonic function on $(-\infty,0)$, so in particular it is finite at $-\infty$
4: If $h_1,h_2$ are absolutely monotonic, their composition is also absolutely monotonic wherever defined since positive/non-negative numbers form a cone
5; $e^x$ is absolutely monotonic everywhere hence $g(x)=\frac{e^{\log g(x)+C}}{e^C}$ is absolutely monotonic on $(-\infty,0)$, so by point $1$, $f$ is completely monotonic on $(0, \infty)$