I'm working on a problem where I'm given that $G$ is a group, $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G,$ $f:G\rightarrow G'$ is a homomorphism, and $H\subseteq \ker(f).$ I need to show that there exists a homomorphism $\overline f: G/H\rightarrow G'$ such that $\overline f \pi = f.$
I have an answer which I believe to be too simple... Define $\overline f:G/H\rightarrow G'$ as $\overline f(gH) = f(g).$ Then $\forall g\in G,$ $\overline f(\pi(g)) = f(g).$ But I didn't even use the fact that $H\subseteq \ker(f),$ so this can't be right. Any advice?
In general if you define maps in terms of representatives of their arguments, you are defining the same function value multiple times; this is only meaningful if all these definitions coincide. In the current case $g$ is just a representative of its coset $gH$, so $gH=g'H$ holds for any other element $g'$ of its coset. Since you defined $\bar f(gH)=f(g)$ where in the right hand side $g$ occurs alone (not in the context of its coset $gH$), you must check that whenever $gH=g'H$ it follows that $f(g)=f(g')$, or otherwise your definition would be meaningless. Very often the check of meaningfulness for functions defined like this is the hardest part.