I have the following problem:
- f(x) is a polynomial function.
- Prove that the equation: g(x)=tan(x)-f(x) has a root (so g(x) = 0).
I considered the limitations of tan, and tried to get some values to apply the intermediate value theorem but the values do not have opposite signs.
g(-π/4) = -1 - f(-π/4)
g(π/4) = -1 - f(π/4)
g(0) = -f(0)
Am I missing something with what I've found? or my route is wrong?
Restrict your function $g(x)$ in the interval $(-\pi/2, \pi/2)$. Since f is a polynomial hence continuous and hence between $[-M, M]$ for some $M >0$ within the interval $[-\pi/2, \pi/2]$. But $\tan(x) \to \pm \infty$ as $x \to \pm \pi/2$. So you see as you go from $x = -\pi/2$ to $x=\pi/2$ your function $g$ goes from $-\infty$ to $\infty$. By intermediate value theorem (since $g$ is continuous), you have a root of $g$ in $(-\pi/2, \pi/2)$.
It in fact proves $g$ must have an infinite number of roots, at least one in each interval of the form $((2n-1)\pi/2, (2n+1)\pi/2)$ for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$.