Let $X$ be a set, ler $R$ be a binary relation on $X$, let $PX$ be the set of subsets of $X$, then 1) and 2) are equivalent:
1) $\forall a\in X\ \forall A\in PX(\forall f\in X(aRf\rightarrow f\in A)\rightarrow\forall g\in X(aRg\rightarrow\forall h(gRh\rightarrow h\in A)))$
2)$\forall a,g,h((aRg,gRh)\rightarrow\forall A[(\forall f(aRf\rightarrow f\in A))\rightarrow h\in A])$
Is there a way to prove the equivalence?
I think I have proven it without resorting to set-theoretic axioms. Let us introduce the following abbreviations: $$\phi:= aRg, \psi:=gRh, \chi:={f\in A}, \mu:={h\in A}, \kappa:= aRf$$
The formulae now become (ignoring domain specifications): $$\begin{align*}\forall a \forall A &\left((\forall f: \kappa \to \chi) \to \forall g[\phi\to\forall h(\psi\to\mu)]\right) \\ \forall a \forall g \forall h & \left((\phi \land \psi)\to\forall A[(\forall f:\kappa\to\chi)\to\mu]\right)\end{align*}$$
We will proceed by showing they are both equivalent to: $$\forall a \forall A \forall g \forall h \, \left(\phi\land \psi \land (\forall f:\kappa\to\chi)\right) \to\mu$$
which basically follows from applying the rules: $$\begin{align*}\phi \to \forall x \psi &\iff \forall x (\phi \to \psi) \\ \phi \to (\psi \to \chi) &\iff (\phi\land \psi)\to\chi\end{align*}$$ the first of which is valid whenever $x$ does not occur freely in $\phi$. Please let me know if you want this last part in more detail.