According to the book I'm reading on Option Pricing:
Since $V$ is an increasing process, $\langle X, V \rangle_t = \langle V \rangle_t = 0$
In this case $X$ is just a price process (according to the book the specific form shouldn't matter, but the process is assumed to be a continuous local martingale)
Does anyone see why this is true? Are there specific conditions under which it is true, or is it just for any increasing process?
I found a similar unanswered question, but wanted to try again: Quadratic Variation of Increasing Process?
Thanks a lot!
Let $Y^1, Y^2$ be semi-martingales with representation $Y^i = X^i + B^i$ where $X^i$ is a continuous local martingale and $B^i$ is a process with paths of bounded variation. Then the quadratic variation of these processes is defined as the quadratic variation of the local martingales, namely $$\langle Y^1, Y^2\rangle := \langle X^1, X^2\rangle, $$ and write $\langle Y^i \rangle := \langle Y^i, Y^i\rangle$.
Using $X$ and $V$ from your example, note that they are both semi-martingales with finite variation part and local martingale part respectively being equal to $0$, so $\langle X + V\rangle = \langle X \rangle$ and $\langle V \rangle = \langle 0 \rangle= 0$. Then using a polarization identity for local martingales we obtain $$ \langle X, V \rangle = \tfrac{1}{2}(\langle X + V\rangle - \langle X \rangle - \langle V \rangle) = \tfrac{1}{2}(\langle X \rangle - \langle X \rangle - \langle 0 \rangle) = 0.$$
So as far as I know $\langle X, V\rangle = \langle V \rangle = 0$ holds for $V$ being of finite variation and $X$ being a continuous semi-martingale, but these conditions can probably be somewhat loosened.