I am having a problem with the following question. I have tried using the definition of square integrable martingales and quadratic variation, but just can't seem to get anywhere. Can anybody offer me any assistance?
Let $(X_t)_{t \geq 0}$ be a square-integrable Lévy process. Show that $\langle X \rangle_t = t E(X_1^2)$ if $(X_t)_{t \geq 0}$ is a martingale.
I'm not sure how to proceed. If anyone can start me off, that'll be great.
Hints: