Let $x$,$y$ be integers such that the reduced residue system modulo $y$ divides equally into congruence classes modulo $x$.
An example of this is $x=4$, $y=5$.
- The reduced residue system modulo $5$ is $\{1,2,3,4\}$
- These divide evenly into congruence classes of $4$ (one element to a congruence class).
Another example of this is $x=4$, $y=13$
- The reduced residue system modulo $13$ is $\{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12\}$
- These equally divide into the congruence classes of $4$ since each class consist of the same number of elements (3 elements to a class each):
- $\{1,5,9\}$ congruent to $1 \pmod 4$
- $\{2,6,10\}$ congruent to $2 \pmod 4$
- $\{3,7,11\}$ congruent to $3 \pmod 4$
- $\{4,8,12\}$ congruent to $0 \pmod 4$
Is it always true that for any integer $z$ that is relatively prime to $x$, the reduced residue system modulo $y*z$ will also equally divide into congruence classes modulo $x$?
Here's an example of what I am talking about.
Let $z$ be $3$ which is relatively prime to $4$ with $x=4, y=5$
- The reduced residue system modulo $15$ is $\{1,2,4,7,8,11,13,14\}$
- These divide evenly into congruence classes of $4$ (two elements to a congruence class)
- $\{1,13\}$ congruent to $1\pmod 4$
- $\{2,14\}$ congruent to $2\pmod 4$
- $\{4,8\}$ congruent to $0\pmod 4$
- $\{7,11\}$ congruent to $3\pmod 4$
In this case, there $8$ elements in the reduced residue class and all congruence classes of $4$ are included an equal number of times.
Does it always follow that if $x,y$ have the relationship described, that for any integer $z$ that is relatively prime to $x$, that $y*z$ will also have this relationship? I believe that the answer is yes. I am trying to work on the argument that establishes this.
Here's the approach that I came up with:
(1) $y*z$ consists of $z$ complete residue systems modulo $y$:
- $C_{y,1}: 1 \cdots y$
- $C_{y,2}: y+1 \cdots 2y$
- $\cdots$
- $C_{y,z}: (z-1)*y+1 \cdots yz$
(2) For each complete residue system, $R_{y,i}$, the elements will equally divide into the congruence classes modulo $x$.
Argument: If $r \in R_{y,1}$, then $r+y \in R_{y,2}$. So, it follows if $x \mid y$, then $r + y \equiv r \pmod x$. If $x \nmid y$, then each element has a one-to-one mapping with a different congruence class. Since each class of element maps to the same distinct class in $R_{y,2}$, the result follows.
(3) To complete the argument, I want to show that I can take $z$ elements from $R_{y,1}, R_{y,2}, \cdots, R_{y,z}$ such that:
- For each $r_{y,1}$ I take, I can find an $r_{y,2}$ with the same congruence class modulo $x$ but a difference congruence class modulo $z$.
- I can repeat this process for $r_{y,3}$ and so on up until $r_{y,z}$.
- I can do this to the point that I have $\varphi(y)$ distinct pairings of $z$ elements each.
- This would then show that each pairing of $z$ elements forms a complete residue system modulo $z$.
Is there an easier way to prove this? Is my reasoning sound? Is there a more elegant way to complete the argument than my proposed step #3? How would you state the argument for step #3?
Thanks very much!
This is a rather interesting question, which I found quite challenging to properly solve and then write this answer. Your conjecture is correct, but I have a few suggestions and there are several issues with your proof.
In your argument $(2)$, although it's supposed to be about $R_{y,i}$ for all $i$, it only discusses going from $R_{y,1}$ to $R_{y,2}$, with it implicitly assuming this is to be extended appropriately for all $i$. Also, it's not necessary to consider if $x \mid y$ because $x$ and $y$ must be relatively prime. Otherwise, if $\gcd(x, y) = d \gt 1$, then no element of the reduced residue system modulo $y$ has a factor of $d$. Thus, it wouldn't include any of the congruence classes $md \; \forall \; 0 \lt m \le \frac{x}{d}$ modulo $x$, contradicting that each of these classes are equally represented.
Your $(3)$ states you "... can find an $r_{y,2}$ with the same congruence class modulo $x$ but a difference congruence class modulo $z$". The lower-case $r$ values are apparently meant to represent elements from the corresponding $R$ sets, but you should make this explicit. Also, I assume "difference" is meant to be "different", but you don't explain how & what it's different from. Nonetheless, since your third bullet point states "... distinct pairings of $z$ elements each", it seems the term different means distinct. However, a more significant issue is your fourth bullet point which states
You're trying to prove the congruence classes modulo $x$ are all equally represented, so it's not clear, at least to me, how having a complete residue system modulo $z$, which is relatively prime to $x$, would show the conjecture is true.
Here's how I would prove your conjecture instead. First, it's easier to deal with multiplying the value of $y$ by one prime at a time, since if the conjecture is proven true for any given prime, the steps can be repeated for each prime in turn to end up with the result for $z$. Note if $z = 1$, then there's nothing more to do. Otherwise, with $z \gt 1$, let
$$z = \prod_{i=1}^{n}p_i \tag{1}\label{eq1A}$$
where the $p_i$ are all of the $n \ge 1$ (not necessarily distinct) prime factors of $z$. Next, follow the procedure below to handle each of these primes in turn.
The final $y_{n + 1}$ is your $y*z$, with the reduced residue system modulo $y_{n+1}$ of $[1, y_{n+1}]$ being divided equally among each of the congruence classes modulo $x$.