Lets say for example, $L$ is a linear mapping with $V$ as its domain and $W$ as its co-domain.
Theorem: $L(0) = 0$. (Zero vectors)
I know its wrong to assume that every zero vector in $W$ is mapped from a zero vector in $V$, but I can't logically explain why!
Since $L(0) = 0$, and equal signs go both ways (double implication), isn't the statement $L(0) = 0$ implying the $0$ vector in $V$ only maps to the zero vector in $W$, and the zero vector in $W$ can be only mapped from the zero vector in $V$?
I know this is wrong. Can someone explain why?
Thanks
$L(0)=0$ indeed means that $0$ maps to $0$ by the linear transform $L$.
But this doesn't tell you anything about $L(v)$ for other $v$, which might be such that $L(v)=0$ ($L$ might be non-invertible).