It's a pretty simple question on nested quantifiers but I didn't see anything about it on my Textbook or on Google so I wanted to give this a shot.
So let's say you have $P(x)$ and $P(y)$ and you have: $\forall x \exists y(P(x) \rightarrow P(y))$
Would this be equivalent to ($\forall x P(x) \rightarrow \exists y P(y)$)?
Looking at this, I want to say no... But I can't think of a counterexample to show that they aren't equivalent.
Both sentences are true in all $L$-structures. So they are, in an uninteresting way, equivalent.