I'm came across the following proposition which confused me: 
Is there a typo when both $ I = (g) $ and $ J = (g) $? And if not, why use the same notation to describe an ideal of two different polynomial rings?
2026-03-29 16:33:14.1774801994
Question about polynomial rings proof
78 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ABSTRACT-ALGEBRA
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