Suppose $f$ is continuous on $\mathbb{R}$ and is even, i.e. $f(x) = f(-x)$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$, suppose $(p_n)$ is a sequence of polynomials converging uniformly to $f$ on $\mathbb{R}$, does it mean that $p_n$ is also even for each $n$? If not, is there a counterexample?
2026-02-23 20:38:13.1771879093
Question about polynomial sequences and functions
37 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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