I'm looking at the following in Jech's The Axiom of Choice on page 20:
2.4.1. Example: The Countable Axiom of Choice implies that every infinite set has a countable subset.
Proof. Let $S$ be an infinite set. Consider all finite one-to-one finite sequences $$\langle a_0 , a_1 , \ldots , a_k \rangle$$ of elements of $S$. The Countable Axiom of Choice picks out one $k$-sequence for each natural number; more exactly: $$\mathscr{F} = \{ A_k : k \in \omega \},$$ where $$A_k = \{ \langle a_0 , \ldots , a_k \rangle : a_0 , \ldots , a_k\text{ distinct elements of }S \},$$ and $\mathscr{F}$ has a choice function: $f ( A_k ) \in A_k$ for all $k$. The union of all the chosen finite sequences is obviously countable.
And I'm wondering if I can instead prove it as follows:
Let $S$ be an infinite set, that is, $|S| \ge |\omega|$. By the definition of $|S| \ge |\omega|$ there is an injection $f: \omega \hookrightarrow S$. Then $f(\omega) \subseteq S$ yields the desired result.
I think yes but I might be missing something. Thanks for your help.
It is likely that Jech is using the following definition: A set $X$ is infinite set iff it is not finite (i.e., there is no natural number $n$ such that $X$ is in one-to-one correspondence with $\{ 0 , \ldots , n-1 \}$). (I cannot find a statement of this definition in The Axiom of Choice, but Jech does use it in his Set Theory tome.) In the presence of some amount of Choice, being infinite is equivalent to $\aleph_0 \leq | X |$, but this is not a definition.
A set $X$ such that there is no injection $\mathbb{N} \to X$ is called a Dedekind finite set. It is consistent with ZF+$\neg$AC that there are infinite Dedekind finite sets. What this Example shows (once Dedekind finiteness is defined on p.25) is that under the assumption of Countable Choice all Dedekind finite sets are finite.