I've seen the following proof of the basic result that
If $a=kb+r$, then $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b,r)$, for $a,b,r \in\mathbb{Z}$ and $0 \leq r < |b|$.
Proof: By Bézout's identity $\gcd(a,b)=sa+tb$, for some $s,t \in \mathbb{Z}$. Then $\gcd(a,b)=s(kb+r)+tb = (sk+t)b+sr=\gcd(b,r)$.
What I don't understand is why $(sk+t)b+sr$ is exactly $\gcd(b,r)$ and not just some multiple of $\gcd(b,r)$. How can that be seen?
That property becomes clear considering that for any divisor $d$, such that $d|a$ and $d|b$, if $a=kb+r$ then
$$d|kb+r\iff d|r$$
and thus (a,b) and (b,r) share the same set of common divisors and therefore
$$\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b,r)$$