Let $R$ a ring and $I$ be an ideal of $R$. Then, let $I'$ be an ideal of $I$. Is it true that one can always write $I'$ as the intersection $I\cap J$ for some ideal $J$ of $R$?
I already know that taking $J=I'$ does not work in general, but I am not sure how to approach the general case.
Here’s an explicit example.
Let $R$ be the ring of all $2\times 2$ matrices with real coefficients of the form $$\left(\begin{array}{cc} a & b\\ 0 & c \end{array}\right).$$ It is a nice exercise to verify that the ideals of this ring are exactly the following:
Now consider the ideal $J_1$; when you multiply two such matrices, you get $$\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & b\\ 0 & c\end{array}\right) \left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & s\\ 0 & t \end{array}\right) = \left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & bt\\ 0 & ct \end{array}\right).$$ That means that the set of matrices that have first row and first column equal to $0$, that is matrices of the form $$\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 0\\ 0 & c \end{array}\right)$$ are an ideal of $J_1$. However, there is no ideal of $R$ that, intersected with $J_1$, will give this set. Of course, any such intersection would have to be an ideal of $R$, and we already know this set is not an ideal of $R$ (if you believe my list is complete).