I'm reading a paper about isogeny based cryptography and I came across a sentence that seems to imply that for separable isogenies $\phi$ and $\psi$, the following holds: deg$(\phi \circ \psi)=$ deg$(\phi)$deg$(\psi)$. I can't seem to figure out why this is true, or if it is even true. Any clarification would be super helpful. Thanks!
2026-02-23 13:45:00.1771854300
Question about the degree of the composition of two isogenies
137 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ELLIPTIC-CURVES
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