I just watched some videos from Khan Academy which left me slightly confused. I don't really understand why the formula of a plane is $n(p_1-p_2) = 0$, where $n$, $p_1$ and $p_2$ are vectors.
I do understand the part that $n$ is a vector orthogonal to the plane and thus also orthogonal to the vector $p_1-p$, and that the dot product of those two vectors is $0$.
The part I don't understand is, why should I take $n(p_1-p_2) = 0$ and not $n*(p_1-p_2) + p_1 = 0$.
See the drawing below. In the plane, the orange vector is then $p_1 - p_2$, but in the two dimensional vector I would have to add $p_1$ to it (if I understood correctly) otherwise I would get the vector on the bottom (of the first drawing). So why shouldn't I do this in the three dimensional vector? I must have misunderstood something or missed something.

Yes, you did misunderstand this thing!
Let's go by your logic. You are saying $p_1 - p_2$ denotes this bottom vector, for the moment, say we ignore the vector translation property. Now, denote by $c$ the vector between the tips of $p_1 - p_2$ with the direction being from $p_1$ tip to $p_2$ tip.
Now $p_1+c = p_2 => p_1-p_2=-c$
So $c$ lies in the top orange line, though direction reversed.