Here is the picture in question:

In the proof of $$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac {\sin x}{x} = 1$$ involving the unit circle, how did they get the height of the largest right triangle to be $\tan(x) $? Shouldn't it be equivalent to $\sin(x) $? I feel as if the answer to this question is really obvious, but I've tried solving it by substitution of opposite, adjacent, etc. and it just doesn't work out.
Thanks!
If the radius of the circle is 1, then the triangle involving $\tan(x)$ is one whose base is 1 and whose height is some number, say $h$, and whose angle is given by $x$.
In such a case, the "adjacent" side has length 1, and the "opposite" side has length $h$. Thus
$$ \tan(x) = \frac{\text{opposite}}{\text{adjacent}} = \frac{h}{1} = h $$
so the unknown height is given by $\tan(x)$ as claimed.