I was reading up on a proof of Ramsey's Theorem and I can't understand this part of the proof:
Pick a vertex $v$ from the graph, and partition the remaining vertices into two sets $M$ and $N$, such that for every vertex $w$, $w$ is in $M$ if $(v, w)$ is blue, and $w$ is in $N$ if $(v, w)$ is red. Because the graph has $R(r - 1, s) + R(r, s - 1) = |M| + |N| + 1$ vertices, it follows that either $|M| \geq R(r − 1, s)$ or $|N| \geq R(r, s − 1)$.
Why is that $|M| \geq R(r − 1, s)$ or $|N| \geq R(r, s − 1)$? I know from the proof of $R(3,3) = 6$ that given a vertex, at least $3$ are guaranteed to be either red or blue, so what is the pigeonhole argument for the general case?
Because if it wasn't true that either $|M|\ge R(r-1,s)$ or $|N|\ge R(r,s-1)$, then we would have both $|M|\le R(r-1,s)-1$ and $|N|\le R(r,s-1)-1$, which would imply $$|M|+|N|\le R(r-1,s)+R(r,s-1)-2.$$ But this contradicts the fact that $|M|+|N|+1 = R(r-1,s)+R(r,s-1)$.