define a metric:
$d(\mathbb{x}, \mathbb{y})=|\mathbb{x}|+|\mathbb{y}|$, where $\mathbb{x}, \mathbb{y} \in \mathbb{R}^k$ when $\mathbb{x} \neq \mathbb{y}$ and $d(\mathbb{x},\mathbb{x})=0$.
consider the open ball in $(\mathbb{R}^k, d)$, we say
$B_{r}(\mathbb{x}) = \{\mathbb{y}\in \mathbb{R}^k : |\mathbb{x}|+|\mathbb{y}|<r\}$ where $r>0$.
if $r<|\mathbb{x}|$, we get:
$B_{r}(\mathbb{x}) = \{\mathbb{y}\in \mathbb{R}^k : |\mathbb{y}|<r - |\mathbb{x}|<0\}$
the question is which of the following is true? (1) or (2):
(1) if $r<|\mathbb{x}|$, then $B_{r}(\mathbb{x}) = \{\mathbb{x}\}$.
(2) if $r<|\mathbb{x}|$, then $B_{r}(\mathbb{x}) = \{\varnothing \}$.
and explain why.
if (1) is true:
given $p \in \{\mathbb{x}\}$,
==>then make $0<\epsilon<r$,
==>$N_{\varepsilon}(p) \in \{\mathbb{x}\}$
$p$ is an interior point of $\{\mathbb{x}\}$, which implies $B_{r}(\mathbb{x})$ is open
if (2) is true: $\{\varnothing \}$ is open ,which implies $B_{r}(\mathbb{x})$ is open
for both (1) and (2) can get an open set, so (1) and (2) is true, and $\{\varnothing\} \subset \{\mathbb{x}\}$
we get:
my answer is deduced from the consequence to the reason.
i don't know if there exists a definition or a theroem to show this is true or false.