Question about the solution of the wave equation

1.7k Views Asked by At

The solution of the wave equation $$u_{tt}-c^2u_{xx}=0$$ is given as $$u(x,t)=f(x+ct)+g(x-ct)$$ where $f,g$ are arbitrary functions of one variable.

One way to prove this is the following:

$$(\partial_{tt}-c^2 \partial_{xx})u=0$$ $$(\partial_t-c \partial_x)(\partial_t+c \partial_x)u=0$$

So solutions must satisfy

$$ (\partial_t-c \partial_x)u=0 \;\;\cup\;\; (\partial_t+c \partial_x)u=0 $$

$\displaystyle{(\partial_t-c \partial_x)u=0 \Rightarrow u=f(x+ct)}$

$\displaystyle{(\partial_t+c \partial_x)u=0 \Rightarrow u=g(x-ct)}$


Could you explain me why the last two equations stand??

1

There are 1 best solutions below

2
On

$$\displaystyle{(\partial_t-c \partial_x)u=0 \Rightarrow u=f(x+ct)} \text{ (1)}$$

Define $\xi=x+ct$.

The solution of the above equation is called traveling wave solution, because the wave front is the same at constant $\xi=x+ct$.

$$\frac{\partial \xi}{\partial t}=c$$ $$\frac{\partial \xi}{\partial x}=1$$

$$\partial_t f(\xi)=\partial_\xi f(\xi)\frac{\partial \xi}{\partial t}=c\partial_\xi f(\xi)$$

$$\partial_x f(\xi)=\partial_\xi f(\xi)\frac{\partial \xi}{\partial x}=\partial_\xi f(\xi)$$

Substituting these two quantities into (1) above and we conclude that $f(\xi)$ is a solution of (1).

Define $\eta=x-ct$

Similarly we have: $$\partial_t g(\eta)=-c\partial_\eta g(\eta)$$

$$\partial_x g(\eta)=\partial_\eta g(\eta)$$

Substituting these two quantities into (2) below and we conclude that $g(\eta)$ is a solution of (2)

$$\displaystyle{(\partial_t+c \partial_x)u=0 \Rightarrow u=g(x-ct)}\text{ (2)}$$

Thus this PDE with a traveling wave solution becomes an ODE.

As a matter of factor, for any PDE that does not explicitly on $x$ or $t$, if you search for traveling wave solution, then you can convert it to an ODE (maybe nonlinear though).

For example, the nonlinear Schrodinger equation: $$\left(i\partial_t+a (\partial_x)^2\right)\psi(x,t)+ |\psi(x,t)|^2\psi(x,t)=0$$