I have seen in wikipedia that irrational numbers have infinite continued fraction but I also found $$1=\frac{2}{3-\frac{2}{3-\ddots}}$$ so my question is that does that mean $1$ is irrational because it can be written as an infinite continued fraction?
2026-03-31 13:04:34.1774962274
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Question on continued fraction?
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The theorem about irrationals and and infinite continued fractions is for simple continued fractions. See here
No it does not, since the logic behind the statement is
$x$ irrational $\implies$ $x$ can be written as an infinite continued fraction.
However, this does not necessarily mean that rationals cannot have an infinite continued fraction.