My book defines this:
$a(S) = \frac 1 2 \sum_k^n (s_k)^2 (\theta_k - \theta_{k-1}) = \frac 1 2 \int_a^b s^2(\theta) d\theta$
where $a(S)$ is area of a sector, $s_k$ is a partition index $s(\theta) = s_k$.
The following picture describes this. My question is why is $s^2$ vs $s$? Visually it seems like the area of a sector is $\frac 1 2 b*h$ of a triangle, where $b,h$ are interchanged with $s,\theta$.


The area of a circle of radius $r$ is $\pi \, r^2$. The area of a sector of a circle with angle $\theta$ is $\left(\frac{\theta}{2\pi}\right) \pi \, r^2$, since the ratio $\theta/2\pi$ is the fraction of the whole circle that the sector takes up.
In each sector, using $s_k$ as the radius, and $\theta_{k+1}-\theta_k$ in place of what I called just $\theta$ above, you get the formula:
$$ \mathrm{area} = \frac{\theta_{k+1}-\theta_k}{2\pi} \cdot \pi s_k^2 = \frac{\theta_{k+1}-\theta_k}{2} \, s_k^2 $$
The $\pi$'s cancel out, which is why they don't appear in the formula.