Question re the equivalence relation used to solve the „infinite hat puzzle“

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The

infinite hat puzzle

starts with an infinite sequence of prisoners wearing either black (0) and white (1) hats. One introduces an equivalence relation on sequences of hats $x, y$ as follows:

Define $x \sim y$ if and only if $x$ and $y$ differ in only finitely many hats

$$ x \sim y \iff |\{n \in \mathbb{N}: x(n) \neq y(n)\}| < \infty $$

In the following I will „show“ that there is no finite number $N$ of differences between two sequences for which this definition is sound! Of course my „proof“ must be wrong, but I cannot see where I run into trouble.

So here we go:

Suppose there is a finite $N$. Consider a set $X_N$ where the sequences may differ in some of the first $N$ hats but are identical for the remaining hats $n > N$, e.g.

$$ X_N = \{ x(n): n > N \implies x(n) = 0) \} $$

Of course

$$ \forall x,y \in X_N: x \sim y $$

and therefore there is an equivalence class $[x] \supset X_N$.

Two examples $a,b \in X_N$ are

$$ n \le N: a(n) = 0 $$

$$ n \le N: b(n) = 1 $$

Now consider a new sequence $c \notin X_N$, $c \in X_{N+1} \supset X_N$

$$ n \le N+1: c(n) = 1 $$

The following statements are obviously true

$$ c \not\sim a \qquad (A) $$

$$ c \sim b \qquad (B) $$

(A) holds because $c$ differs from $a$ in the first $N+1$ hats. (B) holds because $c$ differs from $b$ in only one hat $n+1$.

But (A) is not consistent with transitivity $a \sim b \wedge b \sim c \implies a \sim c $.

Therefore I conclude that $c \sim a$ must hold, which is possible if I use $X_{N+1}$ instead of $X_N$. But that means that there cannot be any finite $N$ for which the above mentioned definition of $\sim$ holds. In other words, for an equivalence class $[x]$ with $X_N \subset [x]$ one concludes

$$ \forall N \in \mathbb{N}: X_N \subset [x] \implies X_{N+1} \subset [x] \implies \ldots $$

and therefore

$$ \exists x,y \in [x]: |\{n \in \mathbb{N}: x(n) \neq y(n)\}| = \infty $$

Where am I wrong?

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You were missing an existential quantifier for $N$ in the definition of $\sim$. (Or you can simply omit $N$.) $$x\sim y \,\overset{\text{def}}\iff\, |\{n:x(n)\ne y(n)\}|<\infty\,.$$ In other words, you can't take a fixed number $N$ which is valid for each equivalent pairs.

If $N$ is not fixed, you won't run into such problems. Say $a$ and $b$ differ by $N$ and $b$ and $c$ differ by $M$ digits, then $a$ and $c$ will differ by at most $N+M$ digits, which is still finite.