Question regarding surjectivity of induced homormophism in an old version of Hatcher's proof of Prop. 4.13

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So I am currently trying to understand the given proof of Hatcher's proof of proposition 4.13.

It's this particular part (in the middle of the screenshot) I don't understand:

The extended $f$ still induces a surjection on $\pi_k$ since the composition $\pi_k(Z_k)\to \pi_k(Y_{k+1}) \to \pi_k(X)$ is surjective.

How do we know that this composition is surjective? I understand the implication, but I don't understand why the composition is supposed to be surjective in the first place.

Does that follow from the induction hypothesis, that $\pi_k(Z_k) \to \pi_k(X)$ is surjective? If so, why does "factorizing through $\pi_k(Z_{k+1})$" not affect surjectivity?

I am sorry for not being able to express my confussion in any better way.

I hope someone can enlighten me.

Thank you very much!

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If $\pi_k(Z_k) \to \pi_k(X)$ is surjective, well, the composite $\pi_k(Z_k) \to \pi_k(Y_{k+1}) \to \pi_k(X)$ is that same map, so it is surjective. So yes, it follows from the inductive hypothesis.