I'm running into algebra using homomorphisms for A LOT of things, but I don't think I have a full understanding of what they are. I have read on this site a good explanation that was really great, but I feel like I still lack something.
From what I read, ring homomorphisms show how alike two structures are and the kernels of the homomorphisms are said to say how much alike the two structures are. Whether they be rings or fields or groups.
The relationship that has been causing me havoc is the one that relates the kernel of a homomorphism to the ideal of that ring. What relation does a subset like that have with homomorphisms. Im not asking for a proof,there are plenty out there. I'm just asking for a justification and understanding of homomorphisms and what they are. I want to understand them on a more intuitive level, but it is giving me trouble.
I may be interpreting your question wrong, but you seem to be asking for an intuitive explanation for why the kernels of ring homomorphisms behave the way they do.
Intuitively since everything in the kernel maps to 0, the elements of the kernel should behave like 0. For example $0+0=0$, so if $i,j \in I=\ker\varphi$ for some ring homomorphism $\varphi$, then $i+j$ should also "behave like 0", i.e. $i+j$ should be in $I$. Therefore $I$ should be additively closed. Since $0$ always behaves like 0 and $-0=0$, we would also expect $0\in I$ and $-i\in I$. Therefore using this intuitive argument, we expect $I$ to be an additive subgroup.
Now ideals have one more special property, closure under left and/or right scaling. Where does this come from? It comes from 0s property that $0\cdot a=a\cdot 0=0$, so we would expect that $a\cdot i$ and $i\cdot a$ would be in $I$ as well when $I$ is the kernel of a ring homomorphism.
All this intuition is what gets formalized in the proofs you've read.
Finally I suppose I should just mention that the reason ideals have no other properties (other than what you can derive from these) is that for any two-sided ideal $I$, we can construct a ring homomorphism from say $R$ to $R/I$ which has $I$ as its kernel. In other words, every kernel has these properties, and every set with these properties can be a kernel, so we don't expect any more properties.
I hope I interpreted your question right, and that this is useful.